Rigorous proof of Q39 (infinite triangle question)
Posted: Thu Mar 15, 2012 1:55 am
Hi,
For this question, the answer claims that the limit of (s-r) is a positive number less than 1.
I can understand the part about less than one, since the triangle inequality gives r+1>s => 1>s-r.
However, how do we prove that it must be positive (>0) and cannot be zero?
Thanks a lot for help.
For this question, the answer claims that the limit of (s-r) is a positive number less than 1.
I can understand the part about less than one, since the triangle inequality gives r+1>s => 1>s-r.
However, how do we prove that it must be positive (>0) and cannot be zero?
Thanks a lot for help.